Sanilac Co. Michigan | jonas grumby - 6/18/2018 13:11
most of this thread has been about Paul's words in Timothy. In the text that was cited by many here Paul uses the pronoun "I". That clearly shows that Paul is speaking his word and not God's. If Paul was speaking God's word he would have left out the word I or he would have said "the Lord says or the Lord commands" or something that would show the word he was speaking was not his but rather God's.
The other part of this thread has people citing 1 Corinthians were they are using Roman law words and implying that they are God's words. In that text Paul says "the law says" but the law he is referring to is Roman (man's) law not God's law.
I think you are in error there. How do you figure Paul is applying Roman law, what prompts that claim? Far more likely in a church made up primarily of first century Jews he is referring to Mosaic law, you know as laid out in Leviticus, regarding the matter.
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